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Statement of belief: “Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.” (John 17:17 KJV)

 

Edited 5941(?) 07 26 2027 [2010-10-05]

Edited 5927[(*??*)] 10 12 2031 [2015-01-04] – Additional references in item #1.

Edited 5927[(*??*)] 13 16 2031 [2015-04-06] – Adding a new item #1 re the date stamps of Matthew and Mark vs. John re the Last Supper.

Addition 5928[(*??*)] 08 09 2032 [2015-11-21] – Adding item #17.

Addition 5936[v2016-12-14-21:32] 03 02 2033 [2017-05-28] – Adding hoverlinks to all Bible references, and removing old counters that have been infested by troublesome ads.

Addition 5936[v2016-12-14-21:32] 04 02 2033 [2017-06-27] – Adding item #18, and a reference to the same in item #3.

Addition 5937[v2016-12-14-21:32] 07 30 2034 [2017-10-21] – Adding the “Bible Study… Chronology -” section of the below title of this page.

Addition 5937[v2016-12-14-21:32] 08 04 2034 [2017-10-25] – While working on the Swedish translation of this page: Additions to items #10, and #13, plus minor corrections elsewhere.

Addition 5938[v2016-12-14-21:32] 06 28 2035  [2019-08-30] – Adding a reference to Hosea 6:1-3 re the Third Day!

Addition 5939[v2016-12-14-21:32] 08 10 2036  [2019-10-09] – Editing item #10 re Luke 22:66, item #14 re John 19:14, 31. Adding item #19 re evening twilight vs “dawn”,” early morning” etc. Cf. last prior version!

Updated 5942[v2016-12-14-21:32] 02 09 2039 [2023-05-29]  - Links to updated Wiktionary entry…

Edit 5942[v2016-12-14-21:32] 02 11 2039 [2023-06-04 eve] .Extensive edit of. item #19 while translating item #19 into the Swedish version of this page.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Bible Study

Focusing Upon the Crucifixion Event Specifically, and,

More Generally, upon New Testament Chronology

-

Helpful Questions

for a Quicker Understanding of the

“Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion”

 

 

Focusing upon the red font items under “Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion:

 

1.     Re the 14th vs. the 15th day of the month: When did the Last Supper take place? And the crucifixion?

Leviticus 23:6 defines the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread as the 15th day of the first month:

 6  And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.” Leviticus 23:6

Matthew and Mark both identify the Last Supper as being prepared and eaten on the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which begins with Abib 15:

 12  And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?” Mark 14:12.

17  Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover? 18  And he said… My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples. 19  And the disciples did as Jesus had appointed them; and they made ready the passover.” Matthew 26:17-19.

Yet, John identifies the same Last Supper as occurring prior to said 15th day of the month:

1  Now before the feast of the passover2  And supper being ended, the devil having now put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon's son, to betray him… 3  Jesus… 4…  riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and girded himself.” John 13:1-4.

Accordingly, 1) Is either Matthew and Mark, or else John, in error re the correct timing of this event, or 2) is the Scripture record reliable, such that all three of them are correct? That is, as in Matthew and Mark using the same Scripture calendar as Yeshu is using, while John is using, as he does consistently throughout his gospel, the calendar and the time reckoning “of the Jews?” 3) But if the Last Supper occurred on the 15th day of the month, how is it that almost all are teaching that the crucifixion took place on the 14th day of the month?!!!

2.     Is it at all possible for Yeshua to have been, (1) first crucified at the 3rd hour of the day, and then, later in the same day, at the 6th hour stand trial before Pilate? Please compare Mark 15:25, 33, (Matt 27:45, Luke 23:44, Acts 2:15) with John 19:13-14 (cf. John 4:6)! (2) It is commonly believed that Yeshua stood before Pilate on the very same Friday when he was crucified, isn’t it? Alternatively, (3) are we to assume that the inspired word of the New Testament is in error, even in the original Greek version of the Textus Receptus? If your answers to the above questions are “1) No, 2) Yes, 3) No,” respectively, then perhaps it is time to reconsider our traditional way of thinking and thoroughly consider all the facts while looking for an option that is consistent within itself, isn’t it?

3.     What’s the point of giving a time reference such as ”after two days,” as used for instance in the KJV of Matt. 26:2 and Mark 14:1 (cf. #18 below!,) when no beginning of such a time period is identified in the text?  Isn’t it much more likely and reasonable that, provided such a translation of the original text is permissible by the Greek language, such words are being used for specifying the day of the week, as in ”after [the first] two days [of the week?]”  After all, the Hebrew and Aramaic languages are using no other names for any of the first six days of the week than Day One, Day Two, Day Three, etc., are they? And isn’t Hebrew or Aramaic the language used by the people in Israel and Judea in New Testament times? Cf. Acts 21:40; 22:2; 26:14, John 5:2; 19:17 and Rev. 16:16.

4.     Why was Yeshua (later confirmed by Peter and Paul) repeatedly emphasizing to his followers that he was going to arise on “the third day” if in fact he did arise on the first day of the week and not on “the third day” [of the week?] Cf. Hosea 6:1-3; Matt. 16:21; 17:23; 20:19; 27:64; Mark 9:31; 10:34; Luke 9:22; 13:10, 13-14, 32-33; 18:33; 24:7, 21, 46; John 2:1; Acts 10:40; and 1 Cor. 15:4.

5.     Why would Yeshua say, according to Matt. 12:40, “For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth,” if in fact he was dead and buried no more than one day and two nights?

6.     Why would Yeshua teach, according to Mark 8:31, that he was going to “be killed, and after three days rise again,” if in fact he did rise, not after, but before two days (9 hours (3PM-mid night) + 24 hours + 6 hours = 39 hours?)

a.     Does the bible ever use inclusive reckoning? Or is it the reader of the bible that is superimposing his or her own traditional thinking – as taught by his or her society and culture - upon a bible text? Isn’t it Roman tradition and the Latin language that is using inclusive reckoning? Consider for instance the word “quinquennial" as applied upon the Olympic games: Do those events occur every four years or every five years if they are celebrated in say year 2001 and year 2005?

7.     Considering the last three questions, isn’t it much more likely that Yeshua said what he meant and meant what he said?  Or else, are we to consider the Holy Scriptures, or at least the New Testament, a book lacking precise meaning as to detail? And what about the words of Yeshua? How far exactly are we to extend our lack of trust as to the precision expressed within the word of God?

8.     Referencing the words found in Acts 1:12: “…which is from Jerusalem a Sabbath day’s journey.” What’s the point of referencing a distance in such a unique and unusual way, i.e. in a way not used any other time in the Scriptures, unless the event tied to this passage did occur on a Sabbath? Cf. John 11:18, which text, as far as I am aware, is referencing much the same distance as Acts 1:12!

 

9.     If Acts 1:3 is not lying, and if Yeshua was indeed “being seen of them forty days,” before the conclusion of the events relayed in Acts 1:3-12, and if indeed the events relayed in Acts 1:3-12 took place on a Sabbath, i.e. on the Seventh Day of the week, then on what day of the week must the first day of the forty days have occurred? Am I in error when I count backwards and find that the first of the forty days occurred upon the Third Day of the week, i.e. beginning at sunset Monday night? Or wasn’t Yeshua seen on the day the tomb was opened early on the first of those forty days, actually at the beginning of the first of those forty days?

 

1st Day Sunday

2nd Day Monday

3rd Day Tuesday

4th Day Wednesday

5th Day Thursday

6th Day Friday

7th Day Sabbath

 

 

Resurrection 1

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40 Ascension

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Pentecost 7   Acts 2:1

 

 

10.  Consider carefully Luke 22:66: “And as soon as it was day, the elders of the people and the chief priests and the scribes came together, and led him into their council…” How does this affect the time available for all the events specified in the question #11 below?  What exactly is the meaning behind the words “as soon as it was day?” A search (using Davar 3) of the Syriac Peshitta provides that the Aramaic word (נגהת) thus translated (via the Greek word ημερα) into our modern Bible translations, is found only twice in the New Testament. However, the other text, Luke 6:13, given the context, Luke 6:12-13, gives us a pretty clear picture of the meaning behind this word. That is, sunrise, the beginning of the light and hot portion of the day. A search of the Hebrew OT text, using the root of said Aramaic word  נגה’ gives me 28 hits, most of which texts are using this word to indicate a very bright light, such as the sunrise (cf. Strong’s H5050-5053: “glitter, illuminate, brilliancy, dawn,” and also H6026-6028: “soft, pliable, luxurious, luxury”) Cf. 2 Sam 22:13; 23:4; Job 22:28; Ps 18:12; Prov 4:18; Isaiah 4:5; 9:2; 59:9; 60:3; 62:1; Eze 1:4, 13, 27, 28; 10:4; Joel 2:10; 3:15; Amos 5:20; Habakkuk 3:4! A search of Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew gives two hits for the same Hebrew root: Matt 4:16; 28:1.

 

Cf. also item #19 below!

 

 

11.  Re the commonly believed nine (9) hour time frame, counting from about mid night of the experience in the upper room until “the 3rd hour,” and re the much more limited three (3) hour time frame dictated by Luke 22:66 (as quoted in the last prior question:)

What are the odds that three bureaucracies - interacting one with another and without prior preparation, planning, or arrangement - could and would have carried out all of the extensive proceedings against Yeshua within the nine hours between midnight and mid-morning of the very same Friday, and proceedings #2-8 below within 3 hours, i.e. from daybreak through the 3rd hour, that is, from 6 AM until 9 AM? Remember each of these proceedings:

1. First the mob taking Yeshua prisoner in Gethsemane, then

2. a court trial before the High Priest, then

3. another court trial before Pilate and the Roman authorities, then

4. a third court trial before Herod, then

5. a fourth court trial, the second one, before Pilate and the Roman authorities, and in addition, do not forget!,

6. first the flogging, then

7. the actual walk to Golgatha, and finally

8. the crucifixion procedure itself?

 

Remember, Pilate and Herod were at odds with one another, and the Jewish Court can hardly be perceived as being in the habit of working in close cooperation with either Pilate or Herod, or can it?  Or does the New Testament paint a picture of those three courts, as if they were a tightly knit unit working smoothly hand in hand with one another?  Without even taking into consideration the transportation time between each of these eight numbered scenes, which of these eight events, if any, is likely to have taken less than 3/7th of one hour (3 hours / 7 events,) i.e. less than 26 minutes, to conclude from beginning to end?  How likely, or even possible, is a nine-hour scenario, such as is commonly perceived as having taken place all within one and the same Friday morning? Is such a nine-hour scenario consistent with the Bible?

12.  How has it been possible for Anyone or Anything to fool so many Christians for so many years about any one of the above issues, which issues are supposedly of such focal interest to everyone within Christendom? Who is Anyone? What is Anything? What part of the responsibility for this do I, and each and every one among us, carry upon each our shoulders for such tomfoolery?

13.  Who is responsible for allowing such common misconceptions, as above referenced, to flourish, and remain sustained, throughout each of our lives - as well as throughout history? What part responsibility do I, or you, or anyone among us, carry upon each our shoulders for carrying forwards such false gossip to our very own families, to our brethren, and unto anyone within our society? Don’t we have a responsibility to explore the real truth about this particular – especially when, as now, God has made it available to us? Who or what am I afraid of? Who, in real terms, is my God, the one that I am truly working for, and being loyal unto? Who is my owner? Who do I claim as my owner? In my every day life? As I identify myself using various documents? Whose documents?

14.  Re John 19:14, 31: What exactly is meant by the words “14… it was the preparation of the passover” and “31… for that sabbath day was a high day?” (Cf. also item #19 below!) Are those two days necessarily and always consecutive, i.e. one following immediately after the other? That is to say: Is it true that the weekly 7th Day Sabbath within the seven day Feast of Unleavened Bread always follows immediately upon the 14th day of the First Moon, Aviv? Is the Bible teaching that the 7th Day Shabbat of the Waving of the Sheaf is to follow immediately upon the day when preparation for the evening of the sacrifice of the Passover lamb is to be made? What does Leviticus 23:5-8 and Deuteronomy 16:4 teach re the timing for “the Lord’s passover?” What does Leviticus 23:15-16 teach re the timing of the Waving of the Sheaf and the beginning of the count of fifty days (cf. #15 below?)

 

15.  Re #14 above: What point in time exactly is pinpointed by the words “the morrow after the Sabbath” (Leviticus 23:15, 16?) Sunday morning or the morning of the 7th Day Shabbat? When exactly does the 7th Day Shabbat begin? What does Genesis 1:5 and Leviticus 23:32 teach re the beginning of the Shabbat as well as the beginning of each and every 24 hour day period? When you are at that point of a Sabbath Day, i.e. at the sunset at the very beginning of the Sabbath: What point are you talking about when you say words such as “Tomorrow morning?” What is the relationship between the “night” referenced in Genesis 19:33 and “the morrow” referenced in Genesis 19:34?

 

16.  To understand the true meaning of the Greek words translated, in the KJV, “the first day of the week” you need to use your Strong’s Concordance and Dictionary! Or at least you need to look at some Greek version of the NT! Consider carefully the meaning of each of the three Greek words thus translated! Next, look up the Greek words in the NT that actually means “the First Day” or “Day One” [of the week!]  You’ll find these texts in Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13!  What differences do you see between the Greek words used in these last four passages in comparison to the Greek words used in the passages translated in KJV as “the first day of the week?” Next, do you find any passages in the NT translated “the second day of the week,” “the third day of the week,” “the fourth day of the week,” etc.? Why not? On the other hand, if you look for the other days of the week in the Greek NT, using the same format as in Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13, isn’t it true that you’ll find passages where each and every one of the week days are being specified?!:

·      1st Day: Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13;

·      2nd Day: Matthew 26:2; Mark 14:1; John 4:40, 43; 11:6; Acts 28:13;

·      3rd Day: Luke 2:46; Acts 25:1; 28:7, 12, 17; plus all the passages listed in item #4 above;

·      4th Day: John 11:17; Acts 10:30;

·      5th Day: Acts 20:6; 24:1;

·      6th Day: Matthew 17:1; Mark 9:2; John 12:1;

·      7th Day: Acts 20:6; 21:4, 5; 21:27; 28:14; Hebrews 11:40; 4:4;

·      8th day: Luke 1:59; 2:21; 6:6; 9:28; John 20:26; Acts 7:8; 27:3; Philippians 3:5;

·      10th day [of the month:] Acts 25:6.

 

Don’t you suppose the Roman Catholic Church would have an incentive not to translate (for instance) Luke 5:17 correctly? If Luke 5:17 was translated such that it was clear that this passage describes events happening on Sunday, the First Day of the week, don’t you think that would be quite a strong waker upper for quite a few Sunday keeping Bible believers? For why is Jesus not being criticized (in Luke 5:17) for healing people on Sabbath if indeed Jesus intended for Christians to keep Sunday as a day of Sabbath rest? Indeed, if any of those four passages re Day One of the week was correctly translated, don’t you think that would be a waker upper for such as could distinguish between the Greek words in those four passages and the Greek words used in the passages translated “the first day of the week” in KJV?

Next: If you carefully study the context of each of the NT passages translated “the first day of the week,” isn’t it true that all but one of them is associated with the Feast of Unleavened Bread? And is there any evidence whatsoever that the one exception is not also referencing the very same day within the Feast of Unleavened bread as each of the other like passages?

17.  Considering especially John’s consistent use of the Jew’s calendar and reckoning, can you find any more sensible, or better, meaning for the Greek words (μεθ ημερας οκτω) behind the common translation “after eight days” (John 20:26, KJV?) That is, other than as portrayed under this link?

18.  Re Mark 14:1 and KJV’s translation

Mark 14:1 KJV “After two days was the feast of the passover, and of unleavened bread.”

This is a most valuable passage, and the KJV translation, albeit being a mistranslation, is quite valuable because of it being powerful evidence re the chain of translation from an original Hebrew text. As you can easily recognize – even if you do not know Greek! – KJV’s translation “, and” is supported by the Greek word “και” of the Greek Textus Receptus:

Mark 14:1 GNT-TR  ην δε το πασχα και τα αζυμα μετα δυο ημερας…”

Accordingly, if the Greek Textus Receptus had been a transcript based on a text originally written in the Greek language, then the above translation would have been correct. If so, then this text would not have been a perfectly fitting piece of the puzzle showing us the correct chronology of the New Testament events as it was in real time there and then. My chronology thus far discovered would not be correct, and I would then have had to reconsider large portions of my chronology work thus far. However, God always has a remedy! Remember, truth is always one with itself. Real events are what they are. There is no two ways about it! Isn’t this ever so good to know! No reason ever to doubt reality and real truth! No reason ever to doubt the Creator of the Universe. That is, the real Universe. Virtual reality is quite another matter, isn’t it? Accordingly, let’s now take a look at the Aramaic NT text that is available to us in the form of the Peshitta. Please click the link to read the Peshitta passage for yourself under Interlinear NT!:

The same Aramaic text as written in Hebrew font and as rendered by means of my now obsolete Davar 3 software looks as follows. Please find and download the totally free Davar 4 software, which will provide you with a vast library of ancient Bible versions, Dictionaries, and other most valuable Bible related books:

 Mark 14:1

What difference do you perceive upon comparing the Aramaic text with the above English and Greek texts? All you need to do is to read the English translation of the Aramaic text! No need for you to know or recognize the Aramaic of Hebrew original words! Now, notice that, in the English translation of the Aramaic text there is nothing to support the English ‘and’ of KJV or the Greek ‘και’ of Textus Receptus. On the contrary, you will notice that the word translated “of unleavened bread” is simply written in the genitive form while thus tying to itself the word translated “the Paskha.” That is, “the Paskha of Unleavened Bread” or, to make the Aramaic text even more clear, “the Paskha Preparation Day of [and before] the Feast of Unleavened Bread.” Apparently, the Greek translator was not entirely clear upon the exact differences the Feast of Unleavened Bread and between ‘Passover Day,’ that is, the day for Preparation of the Passover sacrifice, within which day the Passover lamb was killed during the twilight hour between Abib 14 and 15. Accordingly, we find that Abib 14 is the Preparation Day of the Abib 15-21 Feast of Unleavened Bread.

These things considered, we now find perfect agreement between Mark 14:1, between Matthew 26:2, and between the within represented chronology. Please compare also Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew, which is probably the best available transcription of the original Hebrew Matthew text. You will find Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew under this link!:

אחר שני ימים יהיה הפסח :Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew 26:2

 

19.  KJV and most other translations have many passages giving reference to “early morning,” “dawn,” etc., but is that really what the corresponding word in the best available transcripts of the original manuscript really mean?

 

Two years ago (winter 2017/2018) I was induced to make a very thorough word study of the Holy Scriptures re the Hebrew and Aramaic word צפרא, and a number of words associated with such intraday references to time. Unfortunately, I wrote that word study of mine mostly in Swedish, and I have not found time for translating it into English as yet. But building upon some of those findings, I was recently induced to revise and tweak my chronology of the events of Day Four and Day Six of the crucifixion week. At that time I also began a discussion page in the Wiktionary entry (cashed01, cashed02) for said word צפרא.

 

[The following paragraphs of this item are copied [including some clarifying later edit] from two footnotes at Day Four in my article “A Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion”:]

 

The Greek word translated “morning was come”(Matt 27:1); “straight away in the morning” (Mark 15:1); and “early” (Joh 18:28); is προι or προια (Strong’s #G4404-4405.)

 

That said Greek word is a reference to the earliest part of the Hebrew 24-hour day, beginning at sunset, should be obvious to everyone familiar with the evening habits, and the evening song, of the Woodcock. That is, the song of the Woodcock during his constantly repetitive twilight flight path, is heard almost exclusively during the evening twilight hour. The Woodcock’s song may be transliterated into the Hebrew and Aramaic word “צפרא” [tzipporah…]. That is, the Hebrew/Aramaic word from which the above Greek word is translated. And from which the Greek word the quoted English words are then translated.

 

…..

 

Notice KJV’s translation “preparation” within John 19:14 and John 19:31. The Greek word thus translated is παρασκευή, meaning “get ready, readiness” (Strong’s #G3903-3904), which word is a translation from the Aramaic word ערוב in verse 14,וערובתא הות דפץחא  meaning “And the [2nd of two] evenings it was of the Paskha…”

 

Later on, in vers 31, [which verse is the record of an event two days later than that described in verse 14,] we read: “31, מטל דערובתא הות... מתל דשבתא נגהא יומא הוא גיר רבא יומא דשבתא הי   , literally:  “because of the 2nd eve it was… because of the Sabbath, the sunset, the day, it was; for the high the day of the Sabbath that…” In other words: ”because it was the tail end of the day of Preparation [Jewish Abib 16 of that year; Biblical Abib 17; a Friday]… because the Sabbath then beginning was the special Feast Sabbath that… [God has defined for the Waving of the Sheaf; the 1st day of the 50 day reckoning of Omer towards Pentecost]” (cf. the interlinear below!) and which Aramaic word ערוב corresponds to the Hebrew word ערב, meaning “evening,”  Strong’s #H6148-6159.

 

 

 

Yes, it was the end of Day Six and of the first part of the overlapping evening of Day Seven, the Sabbath, as indicated by words 3 to 5 [in the above interlinear Aramaic text.] Verse 31 is a record of the Sabbath events that began as the time of sunset, as indicated by words 13-15.

 

That נגה (word #15) is pointing to sunset, not to dawn(!), is clear - as sunshine! - from the textual context. As also from the definitions provided by Strong’s “H5050-5053: נגה to glitter; causat. to illuminate… brilliancy… H5054: נגהה fem. of 5051, splendor”, yes, despite “H5053: dawn…” (an obvious error.) My Hebrew-English Dictionary provides ” נגה shine, glow”,  as in ‘the glow from a smoldering fire’, and the closely related word ” נגוז vanish, disappear”. It makes little sense for me to associate these definitions with dawn, does it? And then we have Strong’s H5057: נגד a commander (as occupying the front), civil, military or religious; gen. (abstr. plur.), honorable themes”, as in the sign post marking the beginning (front) of a 24-hour period of time, indeed, even as an honorable commander in time! None of that would properly apply when attaching this Hebrew root to dawn, rather than to dusk, would it?

 

 

However, in this verse 31, and in the Aramaic word ערוב, I fail to see anything giving grounds for the Greek word παρασκευή, meaning “get ready, readiness” (Strong’s #G3903-3904.) That is, other than if the Hebrew-Aramaic word itself has a built in meaning like that of the Greek word, above defined? That is, as in ‘Preparation Day before Sabbath’, or perhaps more generally, as in the dark portion of the 24+-hour day being designed for the purpose of preparation, in every way, for the lighted latter half of said 24+-hour day?

 

Likewise, it is clear to me that the plural (dual) form of the word ערוב, ערובת, of verse 14: “וערובתא הות דפץחא  , meaning “And the [2nd of two] evenings it was of the Paskha…”, is here pointing to the latter of two separate evenings within one Hebrew 24+-hour day. That is, the 24+-hour long Abib 14, Passover Day, פץח, includes the evening at its beginning as well as the subsequent one at its end. This is clearly indicated by the letter ד, which letter defines the genitive form of the word פץח. Accordingly, it is clear that verse 14 is pointing to an event occurring simultaneously within the first portion of the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, Abib 15, as well as also within the tail end of the Passover Day, Abib 14.

 

 

Indeed, considering also the consecutive record of John (i.e. a record arranging each event as it occurred in time), which consecutive record I find almost perfectly consistent throughout John’s Gospel, I find that the above said assessment is required by the words of John 18:28, 29:

 

”28. Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early [not “early”, but the evening twilight hour; cf. the Aramaic text above!]; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover [the Seder meal].

”29 Pilate then went out unto them, and said, What accusation bring ye against this man?

John 18:28

 

The event of John 18:28, 29 was obviously an event occurring no less than the evening prior to the event recorded in John 19:14, 16, which latter event is dated to ‘the Preparation of the Passover… about the sixth hour [i.e. noon]’, the Jewish Abib 14:

 

“it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour Then delivered he [Pilate] him [Jesus] therefore unto them to be crucified

John 19:14, 16

 

Likewise, the event of Mark 15:25 was obviously an event occurring no less than the day following the event recorded in John 19:14, 16, above quoted:                             

And it was the third hour [between 8 AM and 9 AM], and they crucified him.

Mar 15:25

The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

John 19:31

 

John 19:31 is the record of an event on the Preparation Day before the weekly Sabbath. Not the Preparation of the Passover! That day was immediately followed by the High Sabbath that defined the 1st day of Omer and the 50-day count towards the Pentecost Seventh Day Sabbath.

 

Having thus arranged the above in the order of time they obviously must have occurred, we can clearly see that the Seder meal of the Jews referenced in John 18: 28, 29 must have been eaten at the end of the day referenced in John 19:14, 16, Abib 14 and the beginning of Abib 15.

 

Furthermore, seeing that per Rabbinic rules the Seder meal of the Rabbis would never fall out at the beginning of Day Six (of the week) [Rabbinic rules prohibit Sabbaths from falling out on two consecutive days (for instance, the First Day of Unleavened Bread when the Seder is being eaten is prohibited from falling out on the Preparation Day before the weekly Sabbath)].  Accordingly, in the year of the crucifixion, the Jewish Abib 15, and the Jewish Seder meal, must have been concurrent either with the weekly Sabbath that followed the event of John 19:31 and Mark 15:25, or else no later than at the beginning of Day Five (Wednesday evening and night.) That is, as suggested by the words:

 

and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover [the Seder meal].” John 18:28, 29

           

 

However, seeing that the Last Supper, the Seder meal, of Jesus and his disciples took place at the end of the Third Day, Tuesday evening, if the Jewish Seder would have taken place on the following Friday, then there would be a full three days between the two corresponding New Moon observations for that month. That much of a difference rarely happens today using the Hillel II Jewish calendar, but would not likely ever have happened in those days when the Sanhedrin was regularly meeting. Thus, we are left with the only likely option of the Jewish Seder falling out, in that year, at the beginning of Day Five. And then, a day and a half later, on Day Six, the Jewish Abib 16, Friday morning, we find the crucifixion taking place at the 3rd hour, and then the burial at sunset. The latter event being recorded by the words used in John 19:31 (see above!).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


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