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Updated 5927± 05 06 2023 [2007-7-21]

 

 

 

 

 

An Attempt at

Parsing the Greek Translation of

the Original Hebrew Text

as Represented by Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew

 

-

 

Strong evidence of an original Hebrew NT manuscript

 

 

 

 

Abstract:

Matthew 28:1 as rendered in KJV is a translation of a Greek manuscript. Said Greek manuscript is itself almost certainly a translation from an original Hebrew text, probably via an intermediary Aramaic text.

The time reference at the beginning of Matthew 28:1 has profound implications upon the calendars used in Christian countries, most especially because of its connotations with Sunday as a weekly holiday.

It stands to reason that when a saying goes from mouth to mouth it is always being more or less corrupted. Unavoidably the same phenomenon is seen in the process of translating from one language to another.

Below is an in depth analysis of a Greek version of the first part of Matthew 28:1 based on the premise that the original text is Hebrew and the original Hebrew text is accurately represented by Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew. Cf. also the two items re Matt. 28:1 at this link (items #1 & 8.)

 

Matthew 28:1 TLT And on the Seventh Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, after dusk…

Matthew 28:1 TLT+ AndH2053, G1161 onH935, G1519 theH1887, G3588 Seventh Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread,H3117-8, H7223, H7676, G3391, G4521 after dusk…H1887, H7925-6, G3588, G3796, G2020

 

 

 

 

Analysis of the text:

 

The Greek translation of an original Hebrew Matthew 28:1 (as rendered in GNT-TR) reads as follows:

οψε δε σαββατων τη επιφωσκουση εις μιαν σαββατων

 

The only extant corresponding Hebrew text corresponding to the above is Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew, which reads:

וביום הראשון מהשבוע בהשכמה

 

KJV rendition:

 In the end(3796) of the sabbath,4521 as it began to dawn2020 toward1519 the first3391 day of the week,4521

 

Martin Luther’s translation into German in 1545:

Am Abend aber des Sabbats [singular], welcher anbricht am Morgen des ersten Feiertages der Sabbate [plural], kam Maria Magdalena...

 

 

Considering that the Greek is certainly a translation of an original Hebrew text, albeit likely with an Aramaic intermediate translation, how should the Greek text be properly parsed? What Greek words correspond to what Hebrew words? How literal a translation of the original Hebrew is the Greek?

 

Beginning with the last Hebrew word “בהשכמה,” meaning ‘in the neck’ or ‘in the beginning,’ I see a very strong correlation and affinity to the Greek word “οψε,” which word relates to ‘the back.’ That is, the neck is where a yoke may be placed, i.e. ‘the place of burdens.’ The neck is at the top of that same back upon which burdens are placed:

 

Strong’s G3796: ὀψέ From the same as G3694 (through the idea of backwardness); (adverbially) late in the day.

Strong’s G3694: ὄπίσω From the same as G3693 with enclitic of direction; to the back, that is, aback (as adverb or preposition of time or place; or as noun)

Strong’s G3693: ὄπισθεν From ὄπις opis (regard; from G3700) with enclitic of source; from the rear (as a secure aspect), that is, at the back (adverb and preposition of palce or time)

 

 

Strong’s H7925:שׁכם  A primitive root; properly to incline (the shoulder to a burden); but used only as denominative from H7926; literally to load up (on the back of man or beast), that is, to start early in the morning.

Strong’s H7926: שׁכם From H7925; the neck (between the shoulders) as the place of burdens; figuratively the spur of a hill.

 

Thus I perceive the Greek “οψε” as being a translation of the Hebrew “שכמה.”

Obviously the above Greek version of Matthew 28:1 is not a word for word literal translation of the above Hebrew. Consider for instance the fact that in the above Greek text the word “σαββατων” is found twice, while in the above Hebrew the corresponding “מהשבוע” is found only once!

When translating a Hebrew text it is common practice to first consider the meaning of that Hebrew and then make the best possible rendering of that meaning into another language. In essence the same principle is being used in KJV as evidenced by the words indicated by italics, which words have no direct correspondence in the Greek text from which KJV is translated.

Let’s consider next the Hebrew word(s) upon which the Greek “επιφωσκουση” is based? What is the meaning of this Greek word?

Strong’s G2020: ἐπιφώσκω; epiphōskō; ep-ee-foce'-ko; A form of G2017; to begin to grow light

Strong’s G2017: ἐπιφαύω; epiphauō; ep-ee-fow'-o; A form of G2014; to illuminate (figuratively)

Strong’s G2014: ἐπιφαίνω; epiphainō; ep-ee-fah'ee-no; From G1909 and G5316; to shine upon, that is, become (literally) visible or (figuratively) known

Strong’s G1909: ἐπί; epi; ep-ee'; A primary preposition properly meaning superimposition (of time, place, order, etc.), as a relation of distribution [with the genitive case], that is, over, upon, etc.; of rest (with the dative case) at, on, etc.; of direction (with the accusative case) towards, upon, etc.

Strong’s G5316: φαίνω; phainō; fah'ee-no; Prolongation for the base of G5457; to lighten (shine), that is, show (transitive or intransitive, literal or figurative)

Strong’s G5457: φῶς; phōs; foce; From an obsolete φάω phaō (to shine or make manifest, especially by rays; compare G5316 and G5346); luminousness (in the widest application, natural or artificial, abstract or concrete, literal or figurative)

 

 

What is being made manifested? Is it something that can be seen with the eyes and therefore something requiring physical light? Or is it an abstract entity in time requiring enlightenment, i.e. understanding/comprehension? The object under consideration here is a certain period of time, a certain Sabbath or Feast Day beginning at sunset, is it not? Thus we cannot very well be talking about physical light, can we? Accordingly, the Greek word “επιφωσκουση” cannot very well be a reference to dawn, but is instead a reference to the manifestation of yet another 24 hour period in time, is it not?

Thus I find that, in effect, the word “επιφωσκουση” is based upon the same Hebrew word “בהשכמה” as is the word “οψε.” It appears as though by adding the definite article, “τη” in “τη επιφωσκουση,” the Greek translator intends to further specify a certain point in time such that he is not being misunderstood, is it not?

 

The time period specified in the Hebrew text is “יום הראשון מהשבוע.”

The Greek word “εις,” meaning ‘in,’ corresponds to the Hebrew pre-fix “ב” in “וביום.”

Thus I find that a proper inter linear rendition of the above words in Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew 28:1 is:

 

Strong’s Dictionary numbers:

H1887, H7925-6

G3588, G3796, G2020

H3117-8, H7223, H7676

G3391, G4521

H935

G1519

H2053

G1161

Shem Tov’s Hebrew:

בהשכמה

יום הראשון מהשבוע

ב

ו

1st Greek rendition:

οψε

σαββατων

 

δε

2nd Greek rendition:

τη επιφωσκουση

μιαν σαββατων

εις

 

English renditions:

a short time after the beginning of;

at nightfall;

after dusk

the foremost among the seven days of the Feast of Unleavened Bread;

the Seventh Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread;

the 21st Day of the 1st Moon;

Aviv 21

in

And; But

 

 

Accordingly, a proper translations of the first part of Shem Tov’s Hebrew Matthew 28:1 is:

 

Matthew 28:1 TLT And on the Seventh Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, after dusk…

Matthew 28:1 TLT+ AndH2053, G1161 onH935, G1519 theH1887, G3588 Seventh Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread,H3117-8, H7223, H7676, G3391, G4521 after dusk…H1887, H7925-6, G3588, G3796, G2020

 

 

 

 

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